Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 24.06.2025 14:14
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Which is a better option, a love marriage or an arranged marriage in India?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What questions are asked in a JP Morgan Hirevue interview?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.